The following article is being written in response to a question I received just this morning. This is a good question, and the one who asked it has given me a wonderful opportunity to restudy a difficult passage, and for that I am very thankful. Having said that, this question is at the heart of a difficult and controversial debate, and it is VITAL that we enter into this study with the intent of discovering and embracing God's will on the matter - not what we think, or want, or feel - but God's will! If, after reading this article, you disagree on biblical grounds, please contact me for further study.
The question I received this morning had to do with 1 Corinthians 14:34 and whether or not the command for women to remain silent in the assembly applies to all women, or just to the prophetesses (female prophets) of the first century (i.e. a specific class of women). Here is the text:
"Let your women keep silent in the churches, for they are not permitted to speak; but they are to be submissive, as the law also says. And if they want to learn something, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it is shameful for women to speak in church" (vs. 34-35).
First of all, I'd like to quickly point out that Paul is referring to the time when the whole church is assembled in one place for the common purpose of worship/edification (1 Cor. 11:18, 20; 14:23). So Paul is not commanding women to remain silent in all spiritual conversations, or in group studies, or even in Bible classes (when the church is split up in different rooms for different studies). This command, in other words, has specific application to the worship assembly.
Now to the real question: does this command pertain to all women, or to a certain class of women in the first century churches (i.e. the prophetesses)? The reason that some limit this command to the prophetesses of the first century is because Paul, in 1 Corinthians 12-14, is setting forth principles governing miraculous gifts in the church. We know, based on Acts 21:8-9 that there were female prophets in the first century. Therefore, in 1 Corinthians 14:34, as Paul limits the use of tongues and prophecy, it is assumed that he is simply limiting the female prophets, not all women.
The problem with this interpretation is that it cannot be proven that Paul was speaking only of prophetesses in the first century. One has to assume that only prophetesses are under consideration. It is true that Paul says a lot in this chapter about the use of miraculous gifts in the church, but that doesn't mean that everything in this chapter has to do with miraculous gifts. Paul refers to non-miraculous prayers (vs. 15), teachings (vs. 19), and psalms (vs. 26). He stresses throughout the chapter that all things were to be done for edification (vs. 12, 26). The assembly was to be decent and orderly (vs. 40). So the Corinthians' misuse of miraculous gifts was merely illustrative of Paul's primary message, which was/is that we need to conduct the assembly with a spirit of reverence and selflessness.
So instead of assuming that the women in verse 34 were prophetesses, we need to recognize that Paul was simply setting forth another regulation for the assembly. Not only were the prophets, the tongue-speakers, the teachers, the song-leaders and the leaders of prayer to conduct themselves appropriately, the women also were regulated. And Paul, by inspiration, regulated the women by commanding them to be silent in the assembly.
Furthermore, the Greek seems to distinguish between women (generally) and prophetesses (specifically). The Greek word for prophetess is prophetis (Luke 2:36; Rev. 2:20). In 1 Corinthians 14, the Greek word prophetis is nowhere found. However, the Greek word prophetes (prophets) is used throughout. Conversely, in verse 34, the word for women is gune, which, in the Greek, refers to women and wives. Now, if Paul was specifically directing this command to the prophetesses, why didn't he use the Greek word prophetis or even prophetes? Or why does he not even mention the gift of prophecy in verse 34? Perhaps it's because he was speaking more generally to all women, not to prophetesses specifically.
Women may actively teach and spread the gospel. Women may be active in spiritual conversations. In the first century, the prophetesses could prophesy privately, or in settings outside of the church assembly. But God, in His wisdom, has commanded women to remain silent during the church assembly. If we're going to limit this command to a class of women in the first century, we need to have concrete evidence within the text to solidify that conclusion...evidence which doesn't appear to exist.
Again, this is a controversial text. If I am wrong, please be a friend and show me my error, because the last thing I want to do is bind where God has not bound, or limit women (or anyone) in a way that God has not limited them.
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