I know that this will make TWO Romans-themed articles in a row, but it's just a coincidence. I happen to be reading through Romans in my morning studies and obviously, there are a lot of fun...and controversial passages in this great epistle.
The last article revolved around Romans 4. Today, let's examine a VERY misunderstood passage in the fifth chapter. Read verses 12-19 with me...
"Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned--(for until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. But the free gift is not like the offense. For if by the one man's offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift of the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many. And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned. For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many offenses resulted in justification. For if by the one man's offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.) Therefore, as through one man's offense judgment came to all men, resulting in condemnation, even so through one Man's righteous act the free gift came to all men, resulting in justification of life. For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so also by one Man's obedience many will be made righteous."
This passage of scripture is often misused by certain denominational preachers to teach the Calvinistic doctrine of "Total Depravity." I imagine the Catholics use it in support of their doctrine of "Original Sin." Both of these doctrines are rooted in the concept that we are all born GUILTY of sin because of the sin Adam committed in the Garden of Eden. The difference is that with Calvinism, not only are all men born sinful, but we are so sinful and corrupt and depraved of goodness that we cannot and will not CHOOSE the right path.
I think it's obvious why Calvinists LOVE this passage in Romans 5. The point is made in verse 12 that "through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin." And then in verse 19 Paul adds, "by one man's disobedience many were made sinners." Just these two statements alone seem to be saying that we are all sinners because Adam sinned and by extension, we are all SPIRITUALLY DEAD because of Adam's sin.
And this is true, to a certain extent. But the key here is free-will and personal accountability. In other words, there is nothing "automatic" about effects of Adam's sin on the rest of us. Look at verse 12 again: "Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men..."
WHY?
"...because all sinned."
Yes, we are all spiritually dead, but it's not the automatic consequence of Adam's sin; spiritual death is the consequence of OUR OWN sin. Adam introduced sin into the world and we have all chosen to follow in his footsteps by committing sins of our own (vs. 14). All men are spiritually dead because all men have sinned (compare to Romans 3:23). By eating the forbidden fruit, Adam and Eve introduced to the world the "knowledge of good and evil." Regretfully, that knowledge of good and evil leads us to rebel against our Maker. But it's OUR choice. It's not automatic, nor is it hereditary.
Interestingly enough, if we are all spiritually dead and wicked at the point of birth BECAUSE of Adam, then by necessity, we are all AUTOMATICALLY RIGHTEOUS because of Christ. Again, verse 18: "Therefore, as through one man's offense judgment came to all men, resulting in condemnation, even so through one Man's righteous act the free gift came to all men, resulting in justification of life." If the consequences of Adam's sin are automatically imposed upon all men, then the benefits of Jesus' death are automatically imposed upon all men, thereby countering the effects of Adam's "original sin." If not, why not?
This passage makes no sense in light of Calvinism, but it does make perfect sense when we read this text with the understanding that men are free-moral agents; we have the ability to choose evil, but we also have the ability to choose good.
So, are there any Calvinists out there reading this passage who can address these points? Any "original sin" advocates that would like to offer an explanation? Have a go at it. I'd love to see some lively debate.
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